Suppose there is a sequence x(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); _{n}=1/(n-2). We know we n tend to infinity the sequence tends to zero. But at n=2 it is equal to infinity. Is this sequence convergent?

There is also a theorem that all convergent sequence are bounded for every n. But the sequence above is not bounded at n=2.

From definition of convergent sequence it seems that only the case that n tends to infinity is concerned, it says nothing about whether it is convergent when n is finite but x_{n}is not.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Is 1/(n-2) convergent?

Loading...

Similar Threads - convergent | Date |
---|---|

I Rational sequence converging to irrational | Dec 10, 2017 |

A Newton's Generalized Binomial Theorem | Sep 29, 2017 |

I Sequences, subsequences (convergent, non-convergent) | May 13, 2017 |

I Absolutely convergent/Conditionally convergent/Divergent | Mar 27, 2017 |

I What do I need to know to understand Uniform convergence? | Dec 17, 2016 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**