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Is a GUT even possible?

  1. Jul 4, 2011 #1

    New member, first post.

    Is a Grand Unifying Theory even possible?

    If there is evolution on our planet, why would there not be an evolution of the laws of the universe? What we theorize, test and measure may be true of our universe at this time point, but could it not be that at the edge of the universe, physical laws have evolved to a point which would never be compatible with the laws we currently use to describe our measurable universe?

    Sorry if it is a profoundly stupid question.
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 4, 2011 #2
    Hi Luigi, welcome to the PF. I have also wondered if the laws of the universe need to be constant from the BB until the end of the universe. The structure of the universe has changed incredibly, also the effect of dark energy has changed over past 7B years, so perhaps some of the laws and physical constants of the universe could have changed also. It would require this grand Physics experiment that we exist in to have a little less initial fine tuning!
  4. Jul 4, 2011 #3

    Which of the Rees Six Numbers and why?
  5. Jul 4, 2011 #4
    I am only an initiate and a retro one at that so you will need help from a pro now.
  6. Jul 4, 2011 #5


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    Staff Emeritus
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    Hi Luigi,

    Just to clarify you seem to be asking two different questions. Firstly is a Grand Unification Theory possible and secondly have the laws of physics always been so.

    Your use of the word evolution is a little misleading because evolution brings up connotations of biological evolution which has little to do with the laws of physics aside from working within them. A resident expert may be able to give you a better answer but I do not know of any reason why a GUT could not exist and contemporary understanding in physics is that the laws of physics have always been true.
  7. Jul 5, 2011 #6


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    If there is an evolution of the laws then there is a way to describe how those laws change over time, and the theory which describes how those laws change over time will be static. So there has to be some unified theory by definition.
  8. Jul 5, 2011 #7
    Why is this necessarily the case?
  9. Jul 5, 2011 #8


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    Because the higher theory is describing the change over time. As long as that change is describable, you can do so with a fixed set of laws.
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