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Is it a Galilean transformation?

  1. Oct 8, 2009 #1
    in a 1 d system.

    x measured WRT an inertial frame k, are the following, valid Galilean transformations:

    x=x'- sin(wt)
    and
    x=x'3





    Not sure where to go with this...
    I cant find any relevant material anywhere.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 8, 2009 #2

    lanedance

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    Galilean to me would imply a trasformation between inertial (no accleration) reference frames

    this would mean the dervative of one wrt the other would be constant & represent teh relative velocity

    neither of the examples appear to satisfy that criteria
     
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