An atom is an atom, it can't be impure. If you have a sample of an element, then yes, it will never be 100% pure.ARC123 said:What I am really talking about is how all atoms have some impurity in them
Friction has nothing to do with purity. It depends (mostly) on surface roughness.ARC123 said:which is why friction happens,
If what you are talking about is a sample (a chunk if it is a solid), then no, it is basically impossible to have it completely pure. It is a mixture to start with, and it's not possible to separate it completely.ARC123 said:but is there a way to create one with no impurity?
An atom is an atom, it can't be impure. If you have a sample of an element, then yes, it will never be 100% pure.Friction has nothing to do with purity. It depends (mostly) on surface roughness.If what you are talking about is a sample (a chunk if it is a solid), then no, it is basically impossible to have it completely pure. It is a mixture to start with, and it's not possible to separate it completely.[/QUOTE]DrClaude said:Hi ARC123, welcome to PF!An atom is an atom, it can't be impure. If you have a sample of an element, then yes, it will never be 100% pure.Friction has nothing to do with purity. It depends (mostly) on surface roughness.If what you are talking about is a sample (a chunk if it is a solid), then no, it is basically impossible to have it completely pure. It is a mixture to start with, and it's not possible to separate it completely.
DrClaude said:Hi ARC123, welcome to PF!An atom is an atom, it can't be impure. If you have a sample of an element, then yes, it will never be 100% pure.Friction has nothing to do with purity. It depends (mostly) on surface roughness.If what you are talking about is a sample (a chunk if it is a solid), then no, it is basically impossible to have it completely pure. It is a mixture to start with, and it's not possible to separate it completely.
That answer from suolintu is nonsense.ARC123 said:Sorry for the confusion. I recently found a forum taking about a object being friction less. In the forum they say that what really causes friction is a electromagnetic interaction between the atoms of both objects. They also said for it to be frictionless the atom would have to have the same electrical charge. He says it theoretical but not in reality. My question was theoretically how would you make a atom's charge completely positive.
Forum link: https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/frictionless-surface.218782/
Look at suolintu comment for reference
Oh okay thanksDrClaude said:That answer from suolintu is nonsense.
Yes, it is possible for an atom to have a pure electrical charge. This can occur when an atom gains or loses electrons, resulting in a net positive or negative charge.
Atoms can gain or lose electrons through chemical reactions or interactions with other atoms or particles. For example, an atom may gain an electron through the process of reduction, or lose an electron through oxidation.
An atom with a pure electrical charge, also known as an ion, plays a crucial role in many chemical and biological processes. It allows for the formation of ionic bonds, which are important in the structure and function of many molecules and compounds.
Yes, an atom can have a partial electrical charge. This occurs when the electrons in a bond are not shared equally between two atoms, resulting in a polar covalent bond. The atom with a stronger pull on the electrons will have a partial negative charge, while the other atom will have a partial positive charge.
No, an atom cannot have both a positive and negative charge at the same time. This would violate the law of conservation of charge, which states that the total charge in a closed system must remain constant. However, an atom can have an overall neutral charge if it has an equal number of protons and electrons.