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Is my proof correct?

  1. Sep 12, 2011 #1
    Suppose that f is a one-to-one correspondence between two sets X and Y. Prove that if X is finite, then Y is finite too.

    my proof: I've already proved that if X is infinite, then Y is infinite too. since f is a one-to-one correspondence, f-1: Y->X exists and by applying the same theorem it can be shown that if f:X->Y and Y is infinite, then X is infinite as well.so, I can claim that if f is a one-to-one correspondence, then X is infinite if and only if Y is infinite. hence, It's possible to say that if f is a one-to-one correspondence between the two sets X and Y, then X is finite if and only if Y is finite.
    Is my proof correct?
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 12, 2011 #2
    Yes, your proof is correct (once you know that infinite = not-finite). Though, it might not be the shortest proof available. That is, that you proved it by making use of infinite sets is suprising.
  4. Sep 12, 2011 #3
    Actually It's because the book I'm studying from uses Dedekind's definition of an infinite set that a set is infinite iff there is a one-to-one correspondence between the set and a subset of the set. and then it defines a finite set as a set that is not infinite.so, I tried to stay faithful to the definitions that my book suggests. surely there is a shorter way of proving this using the other definition that says a set A is finite iff it's in one-to-one correspondence with Nk. then I can say X~Nk and X~Y, hence Y~Nk. I guess you meant I could use the second approach and It would be shorter. Is that you what you mean?
  5. Sep 12, 2011 #4
    Aah, that explains things!! Yes, when working with Dedekind-finite things then you need to do it the way you do it.
    Also remark that Dedekind-finite is not the same as finite in the other definition. You need the axiom of choice for that. So it's best to stay close to the definitions!!
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