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I Is my understanding correct?

  1. May 27, 2017 #1
    I was interested in finding a motivation for the generalized Stokes' theorem. I was asking myself why
    $$ \int_D d \omega = \int_{\partial D} \omega $$ for a region ##D## and a (p-1)-dimensional form ##\omega##.
    Then I found something funny when working with some arbitrary functions in two dimensions. Below is what I found.
    In the second image, I called ##x^{\mu}_{i}## and ##x^{\mu}_{f}## the coordinates of the initial and final points, respectively.
    My question is: Is this actually correct?

    kLxFrqv.png
    OTrcGLW.png
     
  2. jcsd
  3. May 27, 2017 #2
    I'm not sure about that generalization from 2 to p dimensions that I did above.
     
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