Is it true that (dy/dx) = 1/(dx/dy) ? Is it still true if these are partial derivatives of a function of multiple variables? (All this, assuming that the inverse function exists)(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Can anybody prove it in terms of the definition of a derivative? or any sort elementary proof at all? (I can almost convince my self it is true with Linear Algebra).

I haven't seen it proven in any books, but it is true for all of the functions I know of. Can I get a definitive answer?

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# Is the derivative equal to one over the derivative of the inverse?

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