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Is this integral undefined?

  1. Oct 3, 2013 #1
    Hi

    Does this integral have a definite value [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx[/itex]?

    Jo
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 3, 2013 #2

    arildno

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    What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?
     
  4. Oct 3, 2013 #3
    Thanks. So you imply it's not a well-defined integral. Actually the original integral is [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x) e^x dx[/itex]. This original integral comes from a step during my derivation of the solution to the IBVP of Burger's equation. This original one seems more absurd, isn't it?

    Jo
     
  5. Oct 3, 2013 #4

    arildno

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    Sure.
    Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.
     
  6. Oct 3, 2013 #5
    I see your point. Thanks.

    Jo
     
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