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Hi

Does this integral have a definite value [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx[/itex]?

Jo

Does this integral have a definite value [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx[/itex]?

Jo

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- Thread starter jollage
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- #1

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Hi

Does this integral have a definite value [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx[/itex]?

Jo

Does this integral have a definite value [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx[/itex]?

Jo

- #2

arildno

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What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?

- #3

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What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?

Thanks. So you imply it's not a well-defined integral. Actually the original integral is [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x) e^x dx[/itex]. This original integral comes from a step during my derivation of the solution to the IBVP of Burger's equation. This original one seems more absurd, isn't it?

Jo

- #4

arildno

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Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.

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Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.

I see your point. Thanks.

Jo

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