# Is this integral undefined?

Hi

Does this integral have a definite value $\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx$?

Jo

arildno
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What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?

What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?

Thanks. So you imply it's not a well-defined integral. Actually the original integral is $\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x) e^x dx$. This original integral comes from a step during my derivation of the solution to the IBVP of Burger's equation. This original one seems more absurd, isn't it?

Jo

arildno
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Sure.
Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.

Sure.
Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.