Is this integral undefined?

  • Thread starter jollage
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Hi

Does this integral have a definite value [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x)dx[/itex]?

Jo
 

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  • #2
arildno
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What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?
 
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What is the requirement for an improper integral of this type to exist?
Thanks. So you imply it's not a well-defined integral. Actually the original integral is [itex]\int^{\infty}_0 sin(x) e^x dx[/itex]. This original integral comes from a step during my derivation of the solution to the IBVP of Burger's equation. This original one seems more absurd, isn't it?

Jo
 
  • #4
arildno
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Sure.
Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.
 
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Sure.
Most likely, you have missed a minus sign in the exponent, in which case the integral will exist.
I see your point. Thanks.

Jo
 

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