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f(x) = -1/2 when x is in [1,2)

f(x) = 1/3 when x is in [2, 3)

and so on, in othe words its the sequence (1/n)(-1)^n, whose series obviously converges to log 2. However is f(x) Riemann integrable and equal to this series?

If so, how to give an upper sum lower sum proof?, just choose a good partion?

thanks,

Lizzie