We know that electromagnetic current can be written as [tex] j^{\mu}_{em} = \frac{1}{6} \bar{Q} \gamma^\mu Q + \bar{Q} \gamma^\mu \frac{\tau^3}{2} Q [/tex] where [itex] Q = \begin{pmatrix} u \\ d \end{pmatrix} [/itex]. We say this induces a transition with [itex] |\Delta I|=1, \Delta I_z =0 [/itex]. What should we understand under that last statement? How do we see that?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Isospin current

Loading...

Similar Threads - Isospin current | Date |
---|---|

I Lorentz transformation and its Noether current | Jul 20, 2017 |

I How is weak isospin/hypercharge calculated? | Feb 20, 2017 |

I Difference between isospins | Mar 11, 2016 |

Help with Heisenberg's "isospin" Hamiltonian | Nov 6, 2014 |

Question about Isospin | Oct 28, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**