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Just curious

  1. Jul 17, 2004 #1
    If multiverse theory is true, then there are multiple universes. "Universe" means "all that exists" or "all that there is". So there can't really be multiple "universes"; rather, would it not make better sense to say that there are subuniverses and therefore say that we are in a subuniverse (to be specific)?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Jul 17, 2004 #2
    Well in a cyclic model, there exists one universe, which undergoes a seemingly infinite number of contractions and bounces, so what we see as a beginning at the big bang was actually preceded by a prior cycle.

    http://wwwphy.princeton.edu/~steinh/dm2004.pdf
     
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