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## Main Question or Discussion Point

So, the common leptonic decay channels for the [itex]K^{+/-}[/itex] is the two quarks annhilating into a [itex]W^{+/-}[/itex] which then decays into whatever electron/muon neutrino pair. What's confusing me is that the [itex]K^{+/-}[/itex] is [itex]J=0[/itex] but the intermediate [itex]W[/itex] is [itex]J=1[/itex]. Is the answer to give the [itex]W[/itex] one unit of orbital angular momentum such that there is a state of 0 total angular momentum?