So, the common leptonic decay channels for the [itex]K^{+/-}[/itex] is the two quarks annhilating into a [itex]W^{+/-}[/itex] which then decays into whatever electron/muon neutrino pair. What's confusing me is that the [itex]K^{+/-}[/itex] is [itex]J=0[/itex] but the intermediate [itex]W[/itex] is [itex]J=1[/itex]. Is the answer to give the [itex]W[/itex] one unit of orbital angular momentum such that there is a state of 0 total angular momentum?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# K+/- Decay Question

Loading...

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**