Can we calculate kinetic energy by multiplying 1/2mv^2 by 1.15 at C/2 speed?

In summary: KE = (8*0.86*C*1.1547) + (8*0.87*C*1.1547) = 11.2 MeV...While taking good care of his energy balance, a bike cyclist accelerates from 0 to 0.86 c. The cyclist's longitudinal mass stays constant at 8 times its original value between 0.86 c and 0.87 c. The change in kinetic energy from 0.86 c to 0.87 c is 11.2 MeV.
  • #1
bobie
Gold Member
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If an electron is traveling at C/2, the Lorenz formula says that mass is about 1.15 me, do we get the value of KE simply multiplying 1/2mv2 by 1.15?
Is it as simple as that?
 
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  • #2
The expression from classical mechanics, [itex] T = \frac{m}{2}v^2 [/itex] is only valid for small velocities. The full relativistic expression for the kinetic energy is given by,

[itex] T = (\gamma -1)mc^2 [/itex] where [itex] m [/itex] is the rest mass, and [itex] \gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{v^2}{c^2}}} [/itex].
 
  • #3
[itex] \gamma = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1-\frac{(c/2)^2}{c^2}}} [/itex]
That is the formula I used and I got 1.1547 shall I multiply this or only .15 by .511 MeV?
 
  • #4
You have calculated the value for gamma and dipole has given you the equation to calculate the KE. As dipole stated the equation half mv squared "is only valid for small velocities".
Rather than just plugging numbers into the relativistic equation to get the answer try to get a better understanding of the equation and when to use it. A search of the "hyperphysics" site might be a good place to start.
 
  • #5
Thanks, I suppose 1-γ, 0.15, should be multiplied by .511.
 
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  • #6
bobie said:
If an electron is traveling at C/2, the Lorenz formula says that mass is about 1.15 me, do we get the value of KE simply multiplying 1/2mv2 by 1.15?
Is it as simple as that?


Newtonian:

KE =1/2 * constant mass * v^2

Relativistic:

KE = 1/2 * changing mass * v^2

(Kinetic energy is the energy that we get when we stop an object. Stopping involves a change of mass)
 
  • #7
jartsa said:
Relativistic:

KE = 1/2 * changing mass * v^2

No, unless you want to invent a new kind of velocity-dependent "relativistic mass" in addition to the one that everybody knows about but almost no physicists use.
 
  • #8
bobie said:
Thanks, I suppose 1-γ, 0.15, should be multiplied by .511.

Total energy of electron at velocity v = gamma * rest energy

So kinetic energy at velocity v must be ... (gamma * rest energy) - rest energy
 
  • #9
jtbell said:
No, unless you want to invent a new kind of velocity-dependent "relativistic mass" in addition to the one that everybody knows about but almost no physicists use.


Oh yes, that mass would be the "longitudinal mass" that is proportional to gamma^3, not the relativistic mass, also known as transverse mass, that is proportional to gamma.

(I thought it was the relativistic mass. This time I was so cautious that I checked that longitudinal mass seems to work correctly with the Newtonian kinetic energy formula.)
 
  • #10
jartsa said:
Oh yes, that mass would be the "longitudinal mass" that is proportional to gamma^3, not the relativistic mass, also known as transverse mass, that is proportional to gamma.

(I thought it was the relativistic mass. This time I was so cautious that I checked that longitudinal mass seems to work correctly with the Newtonian kinetic energy formula.)


NO, that doesn't work either. You would need yet another flavor of 'relativistic mass'. Why do you bother? Physicists just use relativistic formulas, not multiple weird mass definitions to make Newtonian formulas work.

(You would need M = 2(γ-1)mc^2/v^2 as your new 'kinetic relativistic mass'.)
 
  • #11
jartsa said:
Oh yes, that mass would be the "longitudinal mass" that is proportional to gamma^3, not the relativistic mass, also known as transverse mass, that is proportional to gamma.

So you're claiming that ##\frac{1}{2}m_Lv^2 = (\gamma - 1)mc^2## where m is the rest mass and ##m_L = \gamma^3 m##? With a bit of algebra, this proposed equation becomes
$$\frac{1}{2}(\gamma^3 m) (\beta c)^2 = (\gamma - 1)mc^2\\
\frac{1}{2} \gamma^3 \beta^2 = \gamma - 1$$
where β = v/c.

Calculating the left and right sides for various values of β between 0 and 1 shows that they are not equal.

(PAllen beat me to it!)
 
  • #12
A correct formulation of relativistic dynamics for point particles is:

F = dp/dt
p = ##\gamma## m v

where:
F is the force (3-force)
p is the momentum
t is time (coordinate time)
m is the invariant mass

Note that one must use the chain rule to find dp/dt. In the usual case, the invariant mass of the point particle isn't changing, and one would get something like:

[tex] F = \frac{d \gamma}{dt} m v + \gamma m \frac{dv}{dt} = \frac{d \gamma}{d|v|}\frac{d|v|}{dt} m v + \gamma m \frac{dv}{dt} [/tex]

where v is the 3-velocity vector and |v| is the magnitude of the 3-velocity vector

The chain rule expansion is a bit ugly , if at all possible it's less error prone to stick with F = dp/dt
 
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  • #13
bobie said:
Thanks, I suppose 1-γ, 0.15, should be multiplied by .511.

Yes, for KE in Mev.
 
  • #14
Let's consider following example:

A bike cyclists accelerates from 0 to 0.86 c, while taking good care of his energy balance. (Assistants fire food portions for the cyclist to catch)

Longitudinal mass of the cyclist becomes 8 times larger.

Then there's a short service break. From 0.86 c to 0.87 c the longitudinal mass stays constant.

The change of kinetic energy when velocity goes from 0.86 c to 0.87 c is:

Delta KE = 1/2 * longitudinal mass * (0.87 c)^2 - 1/2 * longitudinal mass * (0.86 c)^2
 
  • #15
jartsa said:
Let's consider following example:

A bike cyclists accelerates from 0 to 0.86 c, while taking good care of his energy balance. (Assistants fire food portions for the cyclist to catch)

Longitudinal mass of the cyclist becomes 8 times larger.

Then there's a short service break. From 0.86 c to 0.87 c the longitudinal mass stays constant.

The change of kinetic energy when velocity goes from 0.86 c to 0.87 c is:

Delta KE = 1/2 * longitudinal mass * (0.87 c)^2 - 1/2 * longitudinal mass * (0.86 c)^2

This has more mistakes than lines written. I am not going to bother correcting them all, because you just ignore valid responses and make up new nonsense. Please stop.
 
  • #16
To bring Pervect's #12 to work and energy:

With F and P as Pervect defined them (relativistic 3 vectors rather than 4 vectors), some natural results follow:

∫F dot dx is change in energy, and will agree with change of E = mγc^2
 
  • #17
jartsa said:
Let's consider following example:

A bike cyclists accelerates from 0 to 0.86 c, while taking good care of his energy balance. (Assistants fire food portions for the cyclist to catch)
irrelevant
jartsa said:
Longitudinal mass of the cyclist becomes 8 times larger.
uq...
irrelevant
jartsa said:
Then there's a short service break. From 0.86 c to 0.87 c the longitudinal mass stays constant.
impossible
jartsa said:
The change of kinetic energy when velocity goes from 0.86 c to 0.87 c is:

Delta KE = 1/2 * longitudinal mass * (0.87 c)^2 - 1/2 * longitudinal mass * (0.86 c)^2

flat out wrong
 
  • #18
PAllen said:
irrelevant

irrelevant

impossible


flat out wrong

Excuse me, but it's correct. At speed 0.86 c velocity change is as large as Newton predicts, if we use 8 times more force than what Newton's says to be the correct force for that velocity change. Right?

So eight times more work will be done in this velocity change than what Newton says. E = F*d
 
  • #19
jartsa said:
Excuse me, but it's correct. At speed 0.86 c velocity change is as large as Newton predicts, if we use 8 times more force than what Newton's says to be the correct force for that velocity change. Right?

So eight times more work will be done in this velocity change than what Newton says. E = F*d

Can anyone decipher what he's trying to say
 
  • #20
jartsa said:
Excuse me, but it's correct. At speed 0.86 c velocity change is as large as Newton predicts, if we use 8 times more force than what Newton's says to be the correct force for that velocity change. Right?

So eight times more work will be done in this velocity change than what Newton says. E = F*d

If γ is exactly 2, then, at the moment, 3-force is 8 times Newtonian. But integrating over any finite distance, however small, will not be the same 1/2 (γ^3)m v^2. Note, in particular, that:

∫Fdx [itex]\propto[/itex] v^2/2

requires that dp/dt [itex]\propto[/itex] dv/dt, which is false for relativity. You can't pretend gamma is constant for the integration.

So, I repeat, every part of your persistent argument that you can rescue 1/2 mv^2 using any standard form of relativistic mass is just wrong. See post #12, where Pervect kindly wrote the correct formulas.
 
  • #21
Jartsa, may I suggest that you look again at relativity and try to understand it better. If you then get stuck you could start a new thread to ask for clarification. Your comments here have been misleading and are not helpful to the education of bobie, the person who asked the original question on this thread.
 

What is kinetic energy at C/2?

Kinetic energy at C/2 refers to the amount of energy an object has when it is moving at half the speed of light, also known as the speed of light divided by 2. This is a concept in the field of physics and is often used in discussions about the behavior of particles at high speeds.

How is kinetic energy at C/2 calculated?

The formula for calculating kinetic energy at C/2 is E = mc^2/2, where m is the mass of the object and c is the speed of light. This formula is derived from Einstein's famous equation, E=mc^2, and takes into account the effect of an object's mass as it approaches the speed of light.

What are some real-world applications of kinetic energy at C/2?

Kinetic energy at C/2 is a concept that is primarily used in theoretical and experimental physics research. However, it has implications in fields such as particle physics, astrophysics, and cosmology, where the behavior of particles at high speeds is studied.

Can kinetic energy at C/2 be observed or measured?

Since C/2 refers to half the speed of light, which is an incredibly high speed, it is not possible to directly observe or measure kinetic energy at C/2 in real-world scenarios. However, scientists use mathematical models and experiments to study the behavior of particles at these extreme speeds.

What happens to an object's kinetic energy as it approaches C/2?

As an object approaches C/2, its kinetic energy increases exponentially. This is due to the special theory of relativity, which states that the energy of an object increases as it approaches the speed of light. At C/2, an object would have an infinite amount of kinetic energy, making it impossible to reach this speed.

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