Okay, quick question. Can the word "it's" be used to signify ownership? e.g. "To argue whether or not secularisation is occurring, or has occurred, in our society today one must first define religion itself, then define secularisation- how influential is it now, compared to that of the past, and finally define it's significance." Would this be proper usage, or must it be used without an apostrophe despite signifying property or ownage?