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**Kudos to whoever can explain this!!!**

The original question was... how can I show that ... arctan(1/v) = (pi/2) - arctan(v) ???

I understand how to do this the easy way... by forming a right triangle and so on and so forth...

But could someone please explain to me what this is about? Mhill posted this and said it would work, but I don't understand...

if you use the log representation for artan (1/x) and artan (x) so { artan(x)= (2i)^{-1}(log(1+ix)-log(1-ix)) }

and the same replacing x--> 1/x you

get the accurate result.