I have this question here from last year's exam that goes(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

"Use Noether's theorem to show that the angular momentum is conserved when the lagrangian is invariant under rotations."

I just want to know if this is true in the most general case, or if there are some restrictions somewhere not mentioned in the question.

Thank you.

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# Lagrangian & Noether's thm

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