Lagrangian & Noether's thm

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quasar987
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I have this question here from last year's exam that goes

"Use Noether's theorem to show that the angular momentum is conserved when the lagrangian is invariant under rotations."

I just want to know if this is true in the most general case, or if there are some restrictions somewhere not mentioned in the question.

Thank you.
 

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  • #2
dextercioby
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Yes, you'd have to check for infinitesimal rotations.
 

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