Hi all,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I have studied the Landauer's formula from the book "Current at the Nanoscale", but a formula made me confused. In the general case, for a nanoscopic transport, the book gives the formula:

http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/2986/33768834.jpg [Broken]

In the following paragragraph it is told:

"For 1-D case, (current density has no meaning in 1D, so we replace J with I)"

and then it gives

http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/8793/23920600.jpg [Broken]

From these equations I understand that he used

D(E)=1/(2[tex]\pi[/tex])

for 1D system (I may be wrong!). But in the previous chapters, he gives another function for D(E) in 1D:

http://img19.imageshack.us/img19/734/75994918.jpg [Broken]

So, what is the point that I'm missing here?

Thanks in advance,

Cheers

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# Landauer formula in 1D

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