Maybe I am just being stupid, but I don't understand why in the Laplace inversion formula(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex](\mathcal{L}^{-1} F)(t) = \frac{1}{2\pi i} \int_{\sigma-i\infty}^{\sigma+i\infty} e^{st} F(s) ds[/tex]

the contour of integration must be chosen so that [itex]\sigma[/itex] is greater than the real part of all singularities of [itex]F(s)[/itex]. I would be very grateful if someone could explain this.

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Laplace inversion

Loading...

Similar Threads - Laplace inversion | Date |
---|---|

A Inverse Laplace transform of F(s)=exp(-as) as delta(t-a) | Feb 17, 2017 |

A Inverse Laplace transform of a piecewise defined function | Feb 17, 2017 |

I Inverse Laplace to Fourier series | Oct 22, 2016 |

Inverse Laplace transform. Bromwitch integral | Nov 19, 2014 |

Conditions for Laplace and its inverse transform to exist | May 18, 2014 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**