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By definition, the forward Laplace transform of a function [tex]f(x)[/tex] is:

[tex]\mathcal{L}\left\{f(x)\right\}=\int_0^{\infty}\text{e}^{-sx}f(x)\,dx[/tex].

Can we say the same for the function [tex]f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)[/tex], i.e.:

[tex]\mathcal{L}\left\{f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\right\}=\int_0^{\infty}\text{e}^{-\frac{s}{x}}f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\,dx[/tex].??

Thanks in advance