- #1

Char. Limit

Gold Member

- 1,204

- 14

[tex]\mathcal{L}(sin(t))=\frac{1}{s^2+1}=\frac{d}{ds}(tan^{-1}(s))[/tex]

So, I was wondering if the Laplace transform of the sinc function was the inverse tangent function. In LaTEX...

[tex]\mathcal{L}(sinc(t))=tan^{-1}(s)[/tex]

In short, is the above a true statement?