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Laplace transform question

  1. Oct 24, 2012 #1

    Is there some relation between

    [tex]F(s)*G(s)[/tex] and [tex]f(t)g(t)[/tex]?

    ##*## is convolution.
    Last edited: Oct 24, 2012
  2. jcsd
  3. Oct 31, 2012 #2
    Any answer?
  4. Oct 31, 2012 #3
    Yes, there is.

    See here. Check out the 'multiplication' part under the 'Properties and theorems' section.
  5. Nov 2, 2012 #4
    Sorry but I see here only convolution of originals.
  6. Nov 2, 2012 #5
    Here, let me help you, I've taken a snapshot of it:


    The convolution is being done over an imaginary line [itex]Re{(\sigma)} = c[/itex]
  7. Nov 4, 2012 #6
    Ok. Tnx. Do you know how to prove?

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