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Laplace transform

  1. Dec 1, 2009 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

    supposed to prove informally that

    f(x)=Integral 0-->infinity (cosxt/(t^2+1))dt == Pi/2*Exp[-x]

    2. Relevant equations

    3. The attempt at a solution
    no clue, need some hints to get started
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 1, 2009 #2


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    Science Advisor

    Is that (cos x) t or cos(xt)?
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