Okay so im brushing up my Laplace transforms as an independent study and I come across this proof for the "division by t theorem". The idea proof it self I have no problems with except for the limits of the first integration, It feels like they just arbitrarily choose the limits to be from <s,inf> to so convienently get rid of the negative sign. Is there any explaination for the limits of integration?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

here is the problem:

http://www.flickr.com/photos/64771553@N02/5897331839/in/photostream/

here are the related theorems:

http://www.flickr.com/photos/64771553@N02/5897942368/

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# Homework Help: Laplace transform

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