Hello everyone,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

In wikipedia when searching Lorentz representations, there is given that (1/2,0)*(0,1/2) corresponds to Dirac spinor representation and (1/2,1/2) is vector representation, but in P.Ramond's book "Field Theory - A Modern Primer" I read (1/2,0)*(0,1/2)=(1/2,1/2), obviously I suffer from leak of knowledge.

Please advise me how do I understand this line (1/2,0)*(0,1/2)=(1/2,1/2) properly and not to think that Dirac representation = Vector representation?

Also how do I identify that (1,0) representation from (1/2,0)*(1/2,0)=(0,0)*(1,0) corresponds to ""self-dual 2 form representation", could you tell me where do I find these rules or some books to read about this?

Thank you in advance

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**

Join Physics Forums Today!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Learning Lorentz group

**Physics Forums | Science Articles, Homework Help, Discussion**