- #1
omri3012
- 62
- 0
Hallo,
i read in Spivak that for every upper bounded non empty sets A and B,
sup(A+B)=sup(A)+sup(B). but later he wrote other prove which claim that
for every function f and g in a close interval exist sup(f+g)<=sup(f)+sup(g)
and not necessarily sup(f+g)<=sup(f)+sup(g). how does it make sense?
Thanks
Omri
i read in Spivak that for every upper bounded non empty sets A and B,
sup(A+B)=sup(A)+sup(B). but later he wrote other prove which claim that
for every function f and g in a close interval exist sup(f+g)<=sup(f)+sup(g)
and not necessarily sup(f+g)<=sup(f)+sup(g). how does it make sense?
Thanks
Omri