- #1

- 1,444

- 2

is it this?

[tex] \int_{-1}^{1} P_{n}(x)P_{m}(x) dx = 0 [/tex]

in that case to prove that P3 and P1 are orthogonal i have to use the above formula??

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- Thread starter stunner5000pt
- Start date

- #1

- 1,444

- 2

is it this?

[tex] \int_{-1}^{1} P_{n}(x)P_{m}(x) dx = 0 [/tex]

in that case to prove that P3 and P1 are orthogonal i have to use the above formula??

- #2

HallsofIvy

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

- 41,847

- 967

What is the **definition** of "orthogonal" in this case?

- #3

- 35

- 0

you can also use rodriguez formula for this

- #4

- 6

- 0

Hello,

does anyone know the rule to obtain a general [tex]P^n[/tex] Legendre Polynomial in three dimension?

thanks!

- #5

- 6

- 0

sorry, I wronged:the rule to obtain the general [tex]P_n[/tex] Legendre Polynomial

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