dy = lim [tex]\Delta[/tex]x-->0 (f(x+[tex]\Delta[/tex]x) - f(x))(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

dx = lim [tex]\Delta[/tex]x-->0 ([tex]\Delta[/tex]x)

Therefore dy/dx is f'(x) if f(x) = y

Is all of this true? I'm tired of integrating with variable substitution and not knowing what du by itself really means. People are always saying that Leibniz notation doesn't literally represent a fraction, and the seemingly algebraic manipulation is more complicated than it looks. But can't anyone say what exactly is going on? Maybe give me the rigorous definition of "dy" if I was wrong. Thanks.

Oh, and if the above is correct, then can we say that dy/dx is a fraction of limits?

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Leibniz notation clarification?

Loading...

Similar Threads - Leibniz notation clarification | Date |
---|---|

Leibniz Notation | Dec 14, 2015 |

Leibniz notation | Nov 11, 2013 |

Leibniz notation when taking derivatives! | Sep 15, 2012 |

Leibniz notation | Apr 21, 2011 |

Leibniz notation makes no sense? | Feb 18, 2011 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**