Using Leibniz's rule to find dy/dx for
y = integral of e^-t from interval: [ln(x) to ln(x+1)]
The Attempt at a Solution
dy/dx = e^-(ln(x+1))*(1/(1+x))-e^-(ln(x))*(1/x)
= (x+1)/(1+x) - (x/x)
Im not sure what I'm doing wrong or how to properly use leibniz's rule... i checked wolfram alpha and my answer doesn't look right.
also side question, my teacher manages to simplify integral of (x^2)/(x^2+a^2)^2 to (integral 1/(x^2+a^2) - a^2*integral(1/(x^2+a^2)^2)
if you have a clue on how he reaches to that conclusion i would appreciate it.