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Leibniz rule of integration

  1. Feb 12, 2009 #1
    How can I apply Leibniz rule of integration to solve the integral
    [tex]\int_0^t{f\left(t\right)\dot{a}^2\left(t\right)dt}[/tex]
    I want to get rid of [tex]\dot{a}[/tex]??
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 12, 2009 #2
    I am sorry, I meant I want to get rid of [tex]\dot{a}^2[/tex]. Is there any answer to solve this integral? I can have [tex]\dot{f}[/tex] in the answer.

    Thanks,
     
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