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Can you please help me
Thank you in advance
okay I will try to do it from what you guide me and I will let you check it for me.Have you tried to apply the limit comparison test or find the limit of the terms as $k\to\infty$?
Have you tried to apply the limit comparison test or find the limit of the terms as $k\to\infty$?
Can you guide me more because I am very confused right now ?Why didn't you include the numerator $k$ in $a_k$ and $b_k$? Your $b_k$ is different from the series in the problem statement.
I suggest using $a_k=1/k^2$ and $b_k$ as in the original series. Also use the following rule. If $f(x)=ax^m+\sum_{i=0}^{m-1}a_ix^i$ and $g(x)=bx^n+\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}b_ix^i$, then
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\begin{cases}0,&m<n\\a/b,&m=n.\\\infty,&m>n\end{cases}$$
So here is the work that I have done recently so how can I determine that it is convergent or divergent ?The limit comparison test says that in order to ascertain convergence of $\sum b_k$ one can come up with another series $\sum a_k$ for which it is known whether it converges. If $\lim a_k/b_k=c$ and $0<c<\infty$, then the answer for $\sum b_k$ is the same as the one for $\sum a_k$.
I suggest considering $\sum b_k$ to be the series from the problem statement and $a_k=1/k^2$. It is known that $\sum 1/k^2$ converges. What limit do we have to consider to determine the convergence for $\sum b_k$?
so how can I determine that it is convergent or divergent ?
In fact, $\sum_{k=1}^\infty 1/k^2=\pi^2/6$ (see Wikipedia).It is known that $\sum 1/k^2$ converges.
I still do not understand what you are trying to tell me sir.In fact, $\sum_{k=1}^\infty 1/k^2=\pi^2/6$ (see Wikipedia).