- #1

ModernLove

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Then if limit of f(x)/g(x) = 1. That implies lim f(x) = lim g(x) right?

Consider this proof.

lim f(x)/g(x) = 1

lim f(x) x lim 1/g(x) = 1

lim f(x) = 1 / (lim 1/g(x))

lim f(x) = lim g(x).