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Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Limits of f(x) & g(x) Do Not Equal Lim[f(x)g(x)]
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[QUOTE="BvU, post: 4993839, member: 499340"] Hard to read your post. Something like If ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a} f(x)## and ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a} g(x)## both exist and are equal ##\Rightarrow \displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a} f(x)g(x) = 1 ## ? Could that be ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a} f(x)/g(x) = 1 ## ? [LIST] [*]To me ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a}## means "x approaching from the left to a" so I wouldn't worry about "coming from the right" [*]To me ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow a} f(x) = \pm \infty## means the limit does not exist, so I wouldn't worry about those either [*]But the division cause a problem in a particular case, that can serve as a counter-example that makes the general statement not true, [/LIST] [/QUOTE]
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Calculus and Beyond Homework Help
Limits of f(x) & g(x) Do Not Equal Lim[f(x)g(x)]
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