(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({}); 1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data[/bProve

Prove: If the limit as x goes to a of f(x)=infinity, then lim as x goes to a of 1/(f(x) =0

2. Relevant equations

Need to show with a delta-epsilon proof

3. The attempt at a solution

using the definition, lim as x goes to a f(x)=infinity means that for any M>0 there exists an delta>0, where a<x<a+delta implies that f(x)>M. So using this def, I know there is M>0, there exists a delta (not sure what yet) so that a<x<a+delta and taking 1/f(x) shifts the bounds a+delta<x<a and then M would be less than or equal to 0 therefore the lim as x goes to a of 1/f(x)=0.

Am I close? Please help a girl in distress! lol

Michelle

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# Homework Help: Limit Proof

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