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well this is the first time Iv used latex it really took me along time to write, is it suppose to take that long or is there a better way of doing it?

anyway this is a small part of a bigger problem everytime i tried i always show that the limite does not exist, but when i chuck it into mathematica the limite does exist, can anybody help, its really awkward check it out

thanxs

[tex]\int_0^1\frac{\Pi\coth\Pi\times\x}{2}-\frac{1}{2\times\x}dx[/tex]

[tex] \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} (\int_\epsilon^1\frac{\Pi\coth\Pi\times\x}{2}-\frac{1}{2\times\x}dx)[/tex]

then eventually i get this

[tex] \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} (\frac{\log[\epsilon]}{2}+\frac{\log[\sinh\Pi]}{2}-\frac{\log[\sinh\Pi\epsilon]}{2})[/tex]

but no matter how much i tried i cannot get it to equal

[tex]\frac{\log[\frac{\sinh\Pi}{\Pi}]}{2}[/tex]

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# Limits - Improper Integration

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