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Linear operator.(2)

  1. Jan 23, 2007 #1
    Let be the linear operator:

    [tex] g(s)=\frac{1}{s} \int_{0}^{\infty}K(\frac{t}{s})df(t) [/tex]

    could we invert it?

    if we knew the exact expression (or at least approximate) for f(t) and g(t) could we obtain the Kernel K(u) u=s/t ?. thanx i know it's a bit difficult however i would like to hear some opinion, i think a similar expression appears in wikipedia in the article called "Nachbin's theorem' as a generalization to the Borel transform.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Borel_transform
     
    Last edited: Jan 23, 2007
  2. jcsd
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