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Lipschitz condition and Leibniz rule

  1. Feb 12, 2015 #1
    Hi,
    I am reading a paper that states: "We note that if an integrable function satisfies the Lipschitz condition of order one, then differentiation and integration can be interchanged. This provides a more compact way to take the derivative. Consequently, in our proofs, if an integrable function satisfies the Lipschitz condition of order one, then we interchange the differentiation and integration when we take the derivative of the function. Otherwise, we use the Leibniz’ rule to take the derivative".

    Do they mean that if a function is not Lipschitz continous (of order 1) then Leibniz rule can be used?

    Thanks!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 17, 2015 #2
    Thanks for the post! This is an automated courtesy bump. Sorry you aren't generating responses at the moment. Do you have any further information, come to any new conclusions or is it possible to reword the post?
     
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