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**Let f(x)=x**

^{p}Show that f is Lipschitz on every closed sub-interval [a,b] of (0,inf). For which values of p is f uniformly continuous.**So, we know that the map f is said to be Lipschitz iff there is a constant M s.t. |f(p)-f(q)|<=M|p-q|. And we were given the hint to use the Mean Value Theorem from calculus, which states f'(c)=(f(b)-f(a))/(b-a)**

**I said choose (x,y) existing in [a,b], then |f(x)-f(y)|=|x**

^{p}-y^{p}|<=M|x-y|. But I am completely stuck here. I'm not sure how to define what M should be.