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I am a bit confussed with this question I have.

Show that the equation 2x - 1 - sin x = 0 has exactly one root. So this apears in the Mean Value Theorem section of my book. If some one can help it would be great.

I belive I need to use the Intermediate Value Theorem to show that a root exists, but am unsure of what values to use for it. Do I just pick random numbers? I need to show that there is a value between f(a) and f(b) that equals zero which will be a the root. Am I correct??

THanks

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# Little confussed (Mean Value Theorem)

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