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Mark44

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Is F the "correct" answer?I dont understant how the statement is false. Because I gave a reason why it is true. Can someone explain please? thank u

As long as y ≠ 0, it has a multiplicative inverse 1/y. Then if x = 1/y, xy = (1/y)(y) = 1.

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Yes, F is the "correct" answerIs F the "correct" answer?

As long as y ≠ 0, it has a multiplicative inverse 1/y. Then if x = 1/y, xy = (1/y)(y) = 1.

But I believe the correct answer is T

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Dick

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Well, it's not true. Pay attention the quantifiers, it says there exists a fixed x such that for all y. x can't depend on y.Yes, F is the "correct" answer

But I believe the correct answer is T

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So if an existential quantification of x is before the univeral quantification of y then that means that the value of x must be fixed?Well, it's not true. Pay attention the quantifiers, it says there exists a fixed x such that for all y. x can't depend on y.

what if it was the universal quant of y then the existential quan of x? Then would x still have to be fixed?

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There exists a real number x such that for all real numbers y not equal to zero , the expression xy = 1.

Or basically how I am interpreting it is, Let y = a where a is a real number and not equal to zero, then we can find a value of x such that xa = 1. The value of x that we are looking for is x = 1/a. Then choose a number y = b such that b =/= a and not equal to zero, then we can find a value of x such that xb = 1.

We would repeat this process for all values y = a where a is all real numbers.

So as you can see in my understanding of the sentence, the value of x is not "fixed" as u say it is.

- #7

CompuChip

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is false.

##\forall y \exists x (y \neq 0 \implies xy = 1)##

is true.

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