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Is F the "correct" answer?I dont understant how the statement is false. Because I gave a reason why it is true. Can someone explain please? thank u
Is F the "correct" answer?
As long as y ≠ 0, it has a multiplicative inverse 1/y. Then if x = 1/y, xy = (1/y)(y) = 1.
Yes, F is the "correct" answer
But I believe the correct answer is T
Well, it's not true. Pay attention the quantifiers, it says there exists a fixed x such that for all y. x can't depend on y.