Oh the joys of the internet. I read everywhere that Aristotle felt that an object in motion would come to rest without any force acting on it yet no one wants to source anything. I can't find this in his writings myself though I do believe its there somewhere as it seems to be a commonly held conception about Aristotle's views. Is it something that is implied and I'm missing it or is there a specific place he talks about this? I assume it's in his Physics. Specific references would be nice :) Thanks!