# Looks stucked

1. Sep 22, 2004

### irony of truth

I am performing the numerical integration of finding the area of 1/x dx from 0 to 2... using Simpson's rule of n = 6. What will I do in this problem like this since 0 to be evaluated in the f(x) = 1/x is undefined?

2. Sep 22, 2004

### matt grime

I'd check the question since the integral doesn't exist.

3. Sep 22, 2004

### JasonRox

I'm sure it does.

The integral(anti-derivative) is ln x.

I'm pretty darn confident that's what it is. I'd prove it, but I'm not in the mood to spend time on here, and last time I tried Latex it didn't work.

y = ln x

dy/dx = 1/x

4. Sep 22, 2004

### mathwonk

if you are so concerned about your time why are you wasting ours?

5. Sep 23, 2004

### Tide

Yes, but what is the value of ln(x) when x = 0? Even if you try to avoid that limit of integration your answer will diverge as you move your endpoint closer to x = 0.

6. Sep 23, 2004

### matt grime

the integral, as an improper riemann integral (limit h to zero of int from h to 2) does not exist, Jason. The function has an antiderivative, and that can be used to prove this fact.

7. Sep 23, 2004

### JasonRox

Relative to me, your time is going slow, so you might as well take advantage of it.

Kidding.

Sorry, I was getting ready to go to bed, and Latex in fact didn't work last time.

Should of checked my answer, and yes it is wrong.

8. Sep 25, 2004

### metacristi

You can still use Simpson method,though the integral is improper,by taking the limits of the integral as being from 'a' to 2 (where 'a' tends to 0).Finally take the limit for a->0 from the expression in 'a' obtained after applying Simpson's method.The results is ∞,the integral diverges.