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- Thread starter sqljunkey
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- #2

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How do I calculate the Lorentz factor with v=0.

What do you get when you plug ##v = 0## into the formula?

- #3

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This is one of those situations where just doing the calculations gives some insight. As PeterDonis just said, replace v with zero:

##\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{v^2}{c^2}}}##

Let v = 0:

##\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{0^2}{c^2}}}##

##\frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - 0}}##

I'm guessing you can take it from there in terms of arithmetic. So if you saw, say, relativistic momentum

##p = γ(u)mu = \frac{mu}{\sqrt{1 - \frac{u^2}{c^2}}}##

and replaced u with zero, (a) what would the Lorentz factor be and (b) how much momentum would the object have?

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