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I have a question about Lorentz invariant measures,

consider an integral of the form:

[tex]\int d\mu(p) f(\Lambda^{-1}p)[/tex]

where [tex]d\mu(p) = d^3{\bf p}/(2\pi)^3(2p_0)^3[/tex] is the Lorentz invariant measure.

Now to simplify this I can make a change of coordinates

[tex]\int d\mu(\Lambda q) f(q)[/tex]

can I then simplify this such that:

[tex]\int d\mu(q) f(q)[/tex]

because this is Lorentz invariant or am I cheating?

thanks

M

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# Lorentz invariant measure

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