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Lorentz Violating Field

  1. Apr 4, 2008 #1
    Hey folks,

    I'm reading a paper by Sean Carroll (http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/arxiv/pdf/0802/0802.0521v1.pdf [Broken]).

    In the paper he refers to a Lorentz violating background

    [tex]u^a=(0,0,0,0,v)[/tex]

    [tex]
    S=M_*\int d^5x \sqrt{g} \left[-\frac{1}{4}(\nabla_a u_b -\nabla_b u_a)(\nabla^a u^b -\nabla^b u^a)-\lambda(u_au^a-v^2)+\sum_{i=1}^{2} \mathcal{L}_i\right].
    [/tex]


    Can anyone interpret this action?? Also, can anyone explain why the field is Lorentz invariant??

    Thanks in advance.
     
    Last edited by a moderator: May 3, 2017
  2. jcsd
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