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I am struggling to understand why L1 is not weakly compact, while Lp, p>1, is.

The example I have seen put forward is the function u_n (x) = n if x belongs to (0, 1/n), 0 otherwise, the function being defined on (0,1).

It is shown this u_n converging to the Dirac measure, and this shows L1 not being weakly compact (as integrating u_n times the charactersitic function of the interval yields 1 as a result, while the result is zero for a function which is zero at the boundary.

I can not see why this should not happen for Lp, p > 1 too. In the attached short notes there is an example after which (pag. 6) it is stated that this function converges weakly to zero in Lp.

I can not understand this.

Many thanks

Regards

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# Lp weak convergence

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