Find the Maclaurin series for f(x)= 1/ (1+x+X2)
The Attempt at a Solution
I think the book says I can just divide 1 by the Maclaurin series of (1+x+X2). And when i do this the original function is the answer (which makes sense).
But when I do it my finding the derivatives of f(x) and then using the formula I get f(x) = 1-x+x3.
So I was wondering if
1) Which way is correct
2) is the second one accurate.