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Maclaurin's series help

  1. Apr 10, 2003 #1
    1/(1+x^2)=1-x^2 + x^4-x^6+....+(-1)^n(x^2n)+.... -1 > x > 1
    how to get this??.....
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 10, 2003 #2


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    It's basically Maclaurin's series.

    f(x) = f(0) + x*f'(0) + (x^2)/2! * f''(0) +....

    Which derives the binomial series:
    (1+a)^n = 1+ na + n(n-1)/2! * a^2 + n(n-1)(n-2)/3! * a^3 .... As long as |a|<1

    Substitute a = x^2 and n = -1 et viola!
  4. Apr 10, 2003 #3


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    Re: ...

    If you do not want to go all the way to the general theory of series of powers (Taylor and MacLaurin series), you can simply use the result of the geometric series


    which can be obtained with basic arithmetic arguments and substistute y with -x^2.
  5. Apr 10, 2003 #4
    Yes. Because, if you abbreviate the right hand side as S, then obviously
    y*S = S-1
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