Suppose that a function [itex]B:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n[/itex] and [itex]c:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^n[/itex] are defined such that [itex]c[/itex] is differentiable, and(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex]

\dot{c}(t) = B(c(t))

[/tex]

for all [itex]t[/itex]. The question is that what must be assumed of [itex]B[/itex], so that it would become possible to prove that

[tex]

c(T)=c(0)

[/tex]

with some [itex]T\neq 0[/itex]?

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# Magnetic field lines

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