- #1
jostpuur
- 2,116
- 19
Suppose that a function [itex]B:\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^n[/itex] and [itex]c:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}^n[/itex] are defined such that [itex]c[/itex] is differentiable, and
[tex]
\dot{c}(t) = B(c(t))
[/tex]
for all [itex]t[/itex]. The question is that what must be assumed of [itex]B[/itex], so that it would become possible to prove that
[tex]
c(T)=c(0)
[/tex]
with some [itex]T\neq 0[/itex]?
[tex]
\dot{c}(t) = B(c(t))
[/tex]
for all [itex]t[/itex]. The question is that what must be assumed of [itex]B[/itex], so that it would become possible to prove that
[tex]
c(T)=c(0)
[/tex]
with some [itex]T\neq 0[/itex]?