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Magnetic Fields

  1. Nov 4, 2015 #1
    1. The magnetic field at point P due to a magnetic source S1 is represented by ==>. Can a bar magnet S2 be brought close to P so that the total magnetic field at P due to S1 and S2 is zero? Explain your answer.


    2. None


    3. Yes, this is possible if both fields at point P have the same magnitude but a different direction. When two bar magnets are held vis-à-vis to each other (one’s north pole facing the other’s south pole) repulsion occurs between them. In the exact centre between those two poles of the two bar magnets a singular point exists where the magnetic field force equals 0.
    Am I on the right track?
     
    Last edited: Nov 4, 2015
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 4, 2015 #2
    Probably. But this assumes that the second source is sufficiently strong to cancel out the first one with a field equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.
     
  4. Nov 4, 2015 #3
    The second source is just another bar magnet, why would they differ?
     
  5. Nov 4, 2015 #4
    Think like a scientist. If the statement of the question does not say they are identical, then why assume that they are?
     
  6. Nov 4, 2015 #5
    I have just changed my answer. Does it look better now?

    Thank you for your help!
     
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