1. The magnetic field at point P due to a magnetic source S1 is represented by ==>. Can a bar magnet S2 be brought close to P so that the total magnetic field at P due to S1 and S2 is zero? Explain your answer. 2. None 3. Yes, this is possible if both fields at point P have the same magnitude but a different direction. When two bar magnets are held vis-à-vis to each other (one’s north pole facing the other’s south pole) repulsion occurs between them. In the exact centre between those two poles of the two bar magnets a singular point exists where the magnetic field force equals 0. Am I on the right track?