dRic2
Gold Member
 450
 79
 Problem Statement

Assuming that "Coulomb's law" for magnetic charges (##q_m##) reads
$$ \mathbf F = \frac { \mu_0 } {4 \pi } \frac {q_{m1} q_{m2}} {r^2} \mathbf{ \hat r} $$
work out the force law for a monopole $q_m$ moving with velocity ##v## through electric and magnetic fields.
 Relevant Equations
 .
For the magnetic fields it is obvious that ##F = q_m B##, but I don't get why the final result is
$$\mathbf F = q_m(\mathbf B \frac 1 {c^2} \mathbf v \times \mathbf E)$$
The second part is like a "counterpart" of Faraday's Law, but I do not understand why it should be there... For what reason? How do I know that? Isn't Faraday's Law an "empirical law"? Why should I expect a "counterpart" of Faraday's Law for magnetic monopoles?
$$\mathbf F = q_m(\mathbf B \frac 1 {c^2} \mathbf v \times \mathbf E)$$
The second part is like a "counterpart" of Faraday's Law, but I do not understand why it should be there... For what reason? How do I know that? Isn't Faraday's Law an "empirical law"? Why should I expect a "counterpart" of Faraday's Law for magnetic monopoles?